Uniform thickening of periodontal ligament around posterior teeth | MDS entrance preaparations

Uniform thickening of periodontal ligament around posterior teeth is found in

a. Progressive systemic sclerosis 

b. Linear localized scleroderma
c. Dermatomyositits 
d. Lupus erythematosus

Ans. B : Dental radiographic findings in linear form of localized scleroderma include uniform thickening of the periodontal membrane especially around posterior teeth and calcinosis of the soft tissues around the jaws.

Dermatomyositis | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following muscles get weakened in dermatomyositis?

a. Masticatory muscles 

b. Pharyngeal muscles 
c. Palatal muscles 
d. All of the above

Ans. D: Dermatomyositis is inflammatory disease characterized by skin lesion and muscle atrophy.  Symptoms usually begin with proximal muscle of arm, legs and trunk.  The muscle weakness progress to face, neck, larynx and pharynx.

Site of brain involvement in cerebral abscess | Crack AIPGDEE

The most frequent site of brain involvement in cerebral abscess due to odontogenic infection is:

a. Frontal lobe 

b. Parietal lobe 
c. Temporal lobe 
d. Occiptial lobe

Ans. A: Most of the cases of cerebral abscess occur due to spread of pyogenic bacteria from infections of middle ear, paranasal sinuses and lungs.  Sites within brain most frequently affected by abscesses are frontal lobe.

Ceramic restoration | MDS entrance preaparations

The most suitable margin design for all ceramic restoration is:

A. Shoulder
B. Chamfer
C. Shoulder with bevel
D. Depends upon operators choice

      Ans. (A) Shoulder: Finish Lines Indications

     1. Shoulder All ceramics crowns, Porcelain fused to metal crowns, Injectable porcelains.

    2. Shoulder with bevel Proximal boxes of onlays and inlays. Labial finish line of metal ceramics, Occlusal shoulder of onlays.

     3. Chamfer Cast metal restoration, Lingual aspect of metal ceramics   

     4. Knife edge Young patients, MOD onlay, Inaccessible areas, Finish lines in cementum.

    

Features of residual cyst | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following is not a feature of residual cyst

a) contains Rushton bodies cholesterol and heamosiderin
b) cyst is lined internally by stratified squamous non keratinizing epithelium
c) feeding blood vessel in cystic cavity
d) lacks aracades and strand of epithelium extending into the capsule

Ans c: The lining and capsule are similar to the radicular cyst however, both appear more mature, with the former lacking the arcades and strands of epithelium extending into the capsule. 

Patients at risk for endocarditis MCQ | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

For what dental procedures antibiotic premedication need not be recommended in patients identified as being at risk for endocarditis?

a. Periodontal procedures including, scaling and root planing, probing, and recall maintenance

b. Endodontic instrumentation or surgery only beyond the apex

c. Subgingival placement of antibiotic fibers or strips

d. Local anesthetic injections

The correct answer is D: Antibiotic premedication need not be recommended in following patients to prevent endocarditis

      Restorative dentistry (including restoration of carious teeth and prosthodontic replacement of teeth) with or without retraction cord (Clinical judgment may indicate antibiotic use in selected circumstances that may create significant bleeding)

 • Local anesthetic injections (nonintraligamentary)          

 • Intracanal endodontic treatment (after placement and build-up)

 • Placement of rubber dams                                                

 • Postoperative suture removal

• Placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances   

• Making of impressions

•Fluoride  treatments                                                                        • Intraoral radiographs

• Orthodontic appliance adjustment                                                        • Shedding of primary teeth

The cell Junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules | MDS entrance preaparations

The cell Junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called:

A.   Gap Junctions              

B.Tight Janctions
C.   Anchoring Junctions          
D. Focal Junctions

Ans. (A) Gap Junctions: “Gap junctions are a type of inter-cellular junction comprising a narrowed portion of about 3 mm. Of the inter cellular space: that contains channels or pores (2nm) composed ofhexagonal arrays of membrane spanning proteins around the central lumen (connexon) through which ions and small molecules such as most sugars, amino acids, nucleotides, vitamins, hormones and cyclic AMP.” 

Elements of primary healthcare | MDS entrance preaparations

Elements of primary healthcare include all of the following, except:

A. Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation.

B. Providing essential drugs
C. Sound referral system.
D. Health education.

     Ans  (C) 

      Sound referral system.: 

      The concept of primary health care came into limelight in 1978 following an international conference in Alma- Ata (USSR).

• The primary health care approach is based on principles of social equity, nationwide coverage, self reliance, inter-sectorial co-ordination and people’s involvement in planning.

Bell’s palsy Based MCQ | MDS entrance preaparations

In Bell’s palsy , food is retained in upper and lower buccal and labial folds due to weakness of following muscle:

a. Buccinator muscle 
b. Risorius muscle 
c. Temporalis muscle 
d. Masseter muscle

Ans. Bell’s palsy is unilateral dysfunction of the facial nerve leading to abrupt paralysis of the muscles on affected side.  Its feature are eye remain open on affected side, corner of the mouth droped.  As a result of buccinator muscle weakness food is retained in both upper and lower buccal and labial folds, facial expression changes remarkably.

Impaired swallowing or paresthesia of the mouth | MDS entrance preaparations

Impaired swallowing or paresthesia of the mouth and face is found in 

a. Peutz-Jegher syndrome 

b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. Sjogren’s syndrome 
d. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Ans. B: Guillain-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune disease.  It present as difficulty in swallowing and paresthesia of mouth due to weakness of pharyngeal and facial musculature and myalgia or paresthesia of lower limbs.

Atrophy of sternomastoid muscles | AIPGDEE Guide

Atrophy of sternomastoid muscles is found in :

a. Myasthenia gravis 
b. Huntington’s chorea
c. Myotonic dystrophy 
d. Duchenne’s dystrophy

Ans. C: In myotoic dystrophy there is persistence of contraction of muscle and the patient is unable to relax his muscles after contraction.  The muscle become weak and wasting of muscles occur.  Mostly muscle of head and neck are involved.

Features of facial nerve palsy | AIPGDEE MCQs

All of the following are features of facial nerve palsy due to upper motor neuron  disease except

a) A central lesion that causes partial paralysis of the facial muscles

b) The lower facial muscles, contra lateral to the lesion, are paralysed

c) The blink reflex and movement of forehead muscles unaffected

d) None of the above

Ans   d: 

     Characteristics of upper motor neurone disease

• A central lesion that causes partial paralysis of the facial muscles
• The lower facial muscles, contralateral to the lesion, are paralysed
• The orbicularis oculi and frontalis muscles, which receive bilateral cortical fibres, have limited function
• The blink reflex and movement of forehead muscles unaffected

Delayed eruption and hypoplasia of dentition | MDS entrance preaparations

Delayed eruption and hypoplasia of dentition is found in

a. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 
b. Beta-thalassemia major
c. Beta-thalassemia 
d. Sickle cell anemia

 Ans. D: Patient of sickle cell anemia shows jaundices pallor of oral mucosa, delayed eruption and hypoplasia of dentition.  Patients are more prone to develop osteomyelitis due to hypovascularity  of bone marrow.

Multiple Myeloma Characters | MDS entrance preaparations

Multiple myeloma is characterized by:

a. Amyloidosis of tongue 
b. Glossitis 
c. Ulcers on the tongue 
d. Glossodynia

Ans. A: Multiple myeloma is malignant neoplasm of plasma cells.  Skeletal pain is its most common presenting symptom.  Amylodosis of tongue may develop as a complication of this disease.

Dissociative Sedation and Analgesia | AIPGDEE MCQs

Concentration of N20 used to produce Dissociative Sedation and Analgesia? 

A.-15-30%

B.20-45%
C.50-70%
D.70%

Ans. (B)

Plane 2  Dissociation Sedation and Analgesia- Concentration of 25-45%

Mayor may not experience symptoms. Psychological symptoms such as dissociation or detachment are felt A euphoric state, similar to alcoholic intoxication (the laughing gas parties). The patient is suffused by a warm wave and may experience a slight humming or buzzing in the ear.

• with a floating feeling.

• Reduction in blink rate.

Patient has pleasant dreams and has a level of psycho-sedation with the leg, hand sliding of the chair. Patient is conscious and responds to questions, with however, a considerable mental effort involved in thinking. 

Differentiate clinically between necrotic and keratotic white lesions | MDS entrance preaparations

What is a simple way to differentiate clinically between necrotic and keratotic white lesions of the oral mucosa?

a. Scraping off
b. Tolujdjne blue as a metachromatic nuclear stain
c. Fine needle aspiration 
d. Prebiopsy aspiration

The correct answer is A: Necrotic lesions of the mucosa, such as those caused by candidal infections, scrape off when gently rubbed with a moist tongue blade. On the other hand, because keratotic lesions result from epithelial changes, scraping fails to dislodge them.

Periapical lucencies MCQ | AIPGDEE Preparations MCQs with Explanations

If teeth are in the radiation field and the dose is greater than 5,000 rads, periodontally involved teeth and teeth with periapical lucencies should be extracted at least 

a. 2 weeks before radiation therapy begins 
b. 3 weeks before radiation therapy begins
c. 4 weeks before radiation therapy begins 
d. 5 weeks before radiation therapy begins

The correct answer is A: If teeth are in the field and the dose is greater than 5,000 rads, periodontally involved teeth and teeth with periapical lucencies should be extracted at least 2 weeks before radiation therapy begins. The dentist should prepare the patient for post radiation xerostomia, provide custom fluoride trays, and prescribe 0.4% stannous fluoride gel to be used for 3—5 minutes twice daily. The patient must he placed on a 2—3- month recall schedule.

Vital signs in monitoring a critical patient | AIPGDEE Guide

All of the following are vital signs in monitoring a critical patient except

a. Blood pressure 

b. Pulse
c. Respiratory rate 
d. Hematocrit

The correct answer is D: Vital signs in monitering a critical patient are

• Blood pressure: 120mm Hg/8O mmHg                                 • Pulse: 72 beat per minute

• Respiratory rate: 16—20 respirations per minute                 • Temperature: 98.6°F or 37°C

Nerve Cells are present in Trigeminal Ganglion | Crack AIPGDEE

Which type of Nerve Cells are present in Trigeminal Ganglion? 

A. Pseudo-unipolar

B. Bipolar
C. Multiple Polar
D. Non-polar

Ans. (A)

Trigeminal Ganglion- This is the sensory ganglion of the fifth cranial nerve. It is homologous with the dorsal nerve root ganglia of spinal nerves. All such ganglion are made up of Pseudounipolar Nerve Cells with a 'T'-Shaped arrangement of their processes, one process arises from the cell body which then divides Into a central and a peripheral process 

Filumterminale Composition | MDS entrance preaparations

Filumterminale is chiefly composed of 

A. Piamater 
B. Duramater
C. Fibrous tissue 
D. Neural tissue

Ans. C. Fibrous tissue

The filumterminale is a delicate filament, about 20 cm. in length, prolonged downward from the apex of the conusmedullaris.

It consists of two parts, an upper and a lower.

The upper part, or filumterminale internum, measures about 15 cm. in length and reaches as far as the lower border of the second sacral vertebra. It is contained within the tubular sheath of dura mater, and is surrounded by the nerves forming the caudaequina, from which it can be readily recognized by its bluish-white color.

The lower part, or filumterminaleexternum, is closely invested by, and is adherent to, the dura mater; it extends downward from the apex of the tubular sheath and is attached to the back of the first segment of the coccyx.

The filumterminale consists mainly of fibrous tissue, continuous above with that of the pia mater. 

Cells in intestine that migrate to surface | MDS entrance preaparations

Cells in intestine that migrate to surface include the following EXCEPT: 

A. Paneth cells 

B. Enterocytes 
C. Goblet cells 
D. . Enteroendocrine cells

Ans. A. Paneth cells.

• They are found only in deeper part of the intestinal crypts ofLieberkuhn.

• Unlike other lineages, Paneth cells migrate to the crypt base.

• They have a long life-span of —28 days.

• Paneth cells are noted for their prominent secretory apparatus.

• Granules are readily visulaized using a variety of stains including the Phloxine-Tartrazine histochemical stain.

• They are very rich in ZINC.

• Paneth cells provide host defense against microbes in the small intestine

• They are known to produce lysozyme, which destroys bacteria. They are also known to secrete defensins.

• In addition to defensins, Paneth cells secrete lysozyme and phospholipase A2, both of which have clear antimicrobial activity. This battery of secretory molecules gives Paneth cells a potent arsenal against a broad spectrum of agents, including bacteria, fungi and even some enveloped viruses. 

Most common oral infection in Leukemic patients | MDS entrance preaparations

The most common oral infection in leukemic patients is of a. Histoplasma 
b. Phycomycetes
c. Candidiasis 
d. Aspergillus

Ans. C : Oral infection is a serious and fatal complication in neutropenic leukemic patients.  Candidiasis is most common oral fungal infection.  Infection with other fungi such as Histoplasma, Aspergillus or Phycomycetes may also occur.

Etiology of Burkitt’s lymphoma | MDS entrance preaparations

The etiology of Burkitt’s lymphoma is most closely linked with

a Varicella-zoster virus 
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Cytomegalovirus 
d. Coxsackievirus

Ans. B: Epstein-Barr virus is associated with 90 percent of the patient with Burkitt’s lymphoma.  The tumor is associated with poorly differentiated B lymphoma.  The tumor expand rapidly and double in size in 1 to 3 days making it the fastest growing human cancer.

Most frequently bleeding in Hemophilia | AIPGDEE Guide

Which of the following oral structures exhibits most frequently bleeding in hemophilia?

a. Tongue 

b. Labial frenum
c. Buccal mucosa 
d. Gingiva

Ans. B: Hemophilic patient experience many oral bleeding episodes.  There are most frequent in patients with severe hemophilia.  Most common bleeding sites in oral cavity labial frenum 60 percent tongue 23 percent and buccal mucosa 17 percent.

Cluster headache | AIPGDEE Guide

Which of the following is not found in cluster headache
a) occurs mainly in young man >50 years
b) site is unilateral in orbital region
c) intermittent episodes of pain of between 15 to 180 minutes duration on daily basis for several weeks interspersed with pain free periods of months
d) aura phase is common

Ans d

Sex. More common in males than females.

Age. Predominantly affects individuals under the age of 50 years.

Nature. An intense aching pain that disturbs sleep; attacks may occur at the same time each day.

Duration. Typically, there are intermittent pain of between 15 and 180 minutes' duration on a basis for several weeks, interspersed with pain-free periods months rather than days in duration.

Site. The pain is localised to one side of the face, typically affecting the cheek, orbit, forehead and temple.

Bronchopulmonary segment | AIPGDEE Guide

Which bronchopulmonary segment is not present in the left lung
A. Antero-basal
B. Postero-basal
C. Medial basal
D. Lateral basal

Ans. C. Medial basal

· Medial basal BPS number 7.  is not present in the left lung Schwartz surgery. .

· Aspiration pneumonitis is commonly seen in the apical BPS of right lower lobe, if the patient is in supine posture.

· If the patient has aspirated while sitting/standing the aspirate is found in the posterior basal BPS of right lower lobe.

· Aspiration is seen in the posterior BPS of right upper lobe if the patient was immobilized in right lateral position.

If the patient has aspirated, while in left lateral position, the aspirate may be seen in the lower lobe of left lung

Disseminated intravascular coagulation | AIPGDEE Preparations MCQs with Explanations

Disseminated intravascular coagulation can be treated by administration of:

a. Intravenous heparin 
b. Subcutaneous heparin
c. Dicumarol 
d. None of the above

Ans. A: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is treated with intravenous heparin to prevent thrombin from acting on fibrinogen and thereby preventing further clot formation.

Protamine sulfate Application MCQ | Crack AIPGDEE

Excessive bleeding caused due to anticoagulant medication such as heparin, during surgical procedure can be managed by administration of:

a. Recombinant erythropoietin 
b. Injection of vitamin K
c. Protamine sulfate 
d. Conjugated estrogen preparation

Ans. C: Protamine sulfate is the drug of choice for heparin-induced bleeding.  Heparin, an anticoagulant when given in bolus injection carries greater risk of postoperative bleeding.

Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin | Crack AIPGDEE

Which of the following drugs inhibits fibrinolysis by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?

a. Tranexaemic acid 
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Dipyridamole 
d. None of the above

Ans. A: Antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexaemic acid and epsilon amino caproic acid inhibit fibrinolysis by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin resulting in clot stabilization.

Head and neck carcinomas | AIPGDEE Preparations

Factors that have been associated with an increased incidence of head and neck carcinomas include all of the following EXCEPT 

A. Alcohol consumption
B. Syphilis
C. Exposure to nickel
D. Hepatitis B virus

Ans. D.  Hepatitis B virus

Hepatitis B virus is not associated with an increased incidence of head and neck carcinomas. The incidence of squamous cell cancers of the head and neck is related strongly to the use of tobacco and to alcohol consumption, and these factors may have a synergistic effect. Syphilis is associated with an increased incidence of cancer of the tongue. Nickel exposure increases the risk of cancers of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinus. 

Best measure of airflow obstruction | MDS entrance preaparations

Which one of the following is the best measure of airflow obstruction? 
A. Diffusing capacity DLCO.
B. Residual volume RV.
C. 1-Second forced expiratory volume FEV1.
D. 1- FEV1/FVC ratio

Ans. D. 1- FEV1/FVC ratio

A decrease in the 1-second forced expiratory volume—forced vital capacity FEV1/ FVC.  ratio is the hallmark of airflow obstruction The FEV1 is the volume of air forcefully expired during the first second after a maximal inhalation; the FVC is the total volume of air that can be forcibly expelled from the lungs after a maximal inhalation. The FEy1 is decrease obstructive as well as restrictive lung disease capacity DLCO.  and the residual volume RV.  do not identify airway obstruction. The DLCO indicates the adequacy of the alveolar—capillary membrane; the RV is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiratory effort. 

Ulcerative gingivostomatitis with sore mouth | MDS entrance preaparations

Ulcerative gingivostomatitis with sore mouth are the clincial features of

a. Aphthous tomatitis 

b. Gonococcal stomatitis

c. Herpetic stomatitis 

d. Allergic stomatitis

Ans. C : Herpes simplex infection is characterized by ulcerative gingivostomatitis and sore mouth.  It is a self-limiting infection with primary lesions and subsequent manifestation of recurrent infection restricted to oral cavity. 

Best choice to demonstrate only DNA | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following reactions is the best choice to demonstrate only DNA? 
A. Gallocyanin-chrome alum method.
B. Feulgen reaction.
C. Solo chrome cyanine method.
D. Thioflavine S stain

. Ans. B. Feulgen reaction.

Gallocyanin-chrome alum method will stain both DNA and RNA dark blue and,    therefore, cannot provide a good estimate on the amount of DNA in the cell. Thioflavine S stain can be used to demonstrate amyloid deposition and must be visualized with a fluorescent microscope. It cannot be used to estimate the amount of DNA in tissue sections. Solo chrome cyanine method can be used to differentiate osteoid from newly laid-down bone and older bone but does not stain DNA specifically. Feulgen reaction stains DNA red-purple and the cytoplasm green and is a widely accepted method to demonstrate DNA on histologic sections.

Patient with HIV infection requires an oral surgical procedure | MDS entrance preaparations

A patient with HIV infection requires an oral surgical procedure to remove teeth after severe bone loss due to H1V-related localized periodontitis. Proper precautions should be taken as such patients are likely to develop which of the following

a. Immunogenic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). 
b. Hypoglycemia 
c. Urticaria 
d. Angioedema.

The correct answer is A: 

  It is estimated that 10—15% of patients with HIV develop immunogenic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). The antiplatelet antibodies appear to be found more frequently in advanced stages of the disease. Affected patients should have a CBC before any oral surgical procedure. If the platelets are low (below 150,000), the procedure should be done only after consultation with the patient’s physician and with the knowledge that bleeding may be increased. The patient may require platelet transfusions to control postoperative bleeding. Platelet antibodies in serum of patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. 

Patients complaining of dysgeusia(foul taste) | MDS entrance preaparations

Patients complaining of dysgeusia(foul taste), dental sensitivity, erosion and/or pulpitis are suffering from which of the following disorder

a. peptic ulcer 
b. reflux oesophgitis
c. inflammatory bowel disease 
d. crohns disease

Ans   B: 
Patients who experience gastric reflux disease complain of dysgeusia (foul taste), dental sensitivity, erosion and/or pulpitis.  Dental sensitivity is generally due to the erosion of enamel by gastric acid. Erosion leads to dentin sensitivity and, at times, irreversible pulpal involvement.

Orofacial Granulomatosis | Crack AIPGDEE

Which systemic condition is most commonly associated with Orofacial Granulomatosis?

a) coelic disease

b) ulcerative colitis
c) Diverticulitis
d) Crohn’s Disease

Ans d: Over the last decade, there has been increasing attention paid to non-infectious granulomatous disorders of the orofacial region, which include: oral Crohn's disease and oral sarcoid, as well as clinical entities, known as the ˜MelkerssonRosenthal syndrome™ and˜Mieschener's cheilitis granulomatosis (granulomatous cheilitis).

The term orofacial granulomatosis (OFG) was introduced to encompass these disorders and to describe a clinical syndrome presenting with swelling of the face, lips, or oral tissues in association with histological evidence of noncaseating granulomatous inflammation within these tissues

Features of Iron deficiency anaemia | Crack AIPGDEE

All of the followings are features of Iron deficiency anaemia except

a) smooth depapillated tongue

b) patterson Kelly syndrome

c) exacerbation of Recurrent Apthous Stomamtitis

d) Raw beefy tongue

Ans d:

Smooth, depapillated tongue (iron deficiency)

Raw, beefy tongue (vitamin B₁₂ and folate deficiencies)

Oral candidosis (including angular cheilitis)

Exacerbation of RAS

Plummerâ Vinson (Pattersonâ “Kelly) syndrome (iron deficiency) 

Minimal acceptable platelet count for an Oral Surgical Procedure | AIPGDEE Preparations MCQs with Explanations

What is the minimal acceptable platelet count for an oral surgical procedure?

a. 450,000 
b. 150,000 
c. 50,000 
d. 30,000

The correct answer is C: Normal platelet count is 150,000—450,000. In general, the minimal count for an oral surgical procedure is 50,000 platelets. However, emergency procedures may be done with as few as 30,000 platelets if the dentist is working closely with the patient’s hematologist and uses excellent techniques of tissue management.

Cardiac conditions Prophylaxis for Endocarditis | AIPGDEE Preparations, MCQ with Explanations

For what cardiac conditions prophylaxis for endocarditis is NOT recommended in patients receiving dental care? 

a. Prosthetic cardiac valves 
b. Previous bacterial endocarditis
c. Previous coronary artery bypass graft surgery 
d. Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary shunts or conduits

The correct answer is C: Cardiac conditions that do not require endocarditis prophylaxis

• Isolated secundum atrial septal defect

• Surgical repair of atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent ductus arteriosus (without residua beyond 6 months)

• Previous coronary artery bypass graft surgery

• Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation

• Physiologic, functional, or innocent heart murmurs

• Previous Kawasaki disease without valvular regurgitation

Dental Antibiotic premedication | Crack AIPGDEE 2015

For what dental procedures antibiotic premedication need not be recommended in patients identified as being at risk for endocarditis?

a. Periodontal procedures including, scaling and root planing, probing, and recall maintenance
b. Endodontic instrumentation or surgery only beyond the apex
c. Subgingival placement of antibiotic fibers or strips
d. Local anesthetic injections

The correct answer is D:

 Antibiotic premedication need not be recommended in following patients to prevent endocarditis

      Restorative dentistry (including restoration of carious teeth and prosthodontic replacement of teeth) with or without retraction cord (Clinical judgment may indicate antibiotic use in selected circumstances that may create significant bleeding)

        • Local anesthetic injections (nonintraligamentary)       

      • Intracanal endodontic treatment (after placement and build-up)

• Placement of rubber dams                                              

• Postoperative suture removal

• Placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances      

• Making of impressions

• Fluoride treatments                                                                               

• Intraoral radiographs

• Orthodontic appliance adjustment                                                    

• Shedding of primary teeth